Wednesday, July 31, 2019

Chapter 3: Structure and Function of the Cell

Chapter 3: Structure and Function of the Cell Multiple Choice 1. The structural and functional unit of all living organisms is the A)ribosome. B)cell. C)organ. D)organelle. E)plasma membrane. Answer: b Level: 1 2. Which of the following could be used to study general features of cells? A)a magnifying glass B)scanning electron microscope C)transmission electron microscope D)binoculars E)light microscope Answer: e Level: 1 3. In order to study in detail, the anatomy of internal cell parts, it would be best to use A)x-rays. B)flashlights. C)a transmission electron microscope (TEM). D)tissue cultures. E)a scanning electron microscope (SEM).Answer: c Level: 1 4. The plasma membrane A)separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell. B)is a rigid protein membrane. C)is not permeable. D)has a single layer of phospholipids. E)regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell. Answer: e Level: 1 5. The environment outside the plasma membrane is most appropriately referred to as A)intrac ellular. B)extracellular. C)multicellular. D)centrocellular. E)none of the above. Answer: b Level: 1 6. The fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane suggests that A)cholesterol forms the outermost layer of the membrane. B)proteins form a â€Å"liquid† sea in the membrane.C)phospholipids form a single lipid layer in the center of the membrane. D)the membrane is neither rigid nor static in structure. E)proteins are not a part of the membrane. Answer: d Level: 1 7. According to the most current model of the plasma membrane A)cholesterol forms the innermost layer of the membrane B)proteins are free to move about with a double layer of phospholipids C)phospholipids and cholesterol form a single lipid bilayer D)the membrane is a rigid unchanging structure E)the membrane is impermeable to all other molecules. Answer: b Level: 1 8. Which of the following activities is a function of the plasma membrane?A)digestion of unneeded cell organelles B)recognition of bacterial cells by the im mune system C)transport of products from the nucleus to the endoplasmic reticulum D)cell metabolism E)detoxification Answer: b Level: 2 9. Plasma membrane phospholipids A)have polar (charged) tails. B)are arranged in a single layer. C)have tails that face the exterior of the membrane. D)are 95% cholesterol. E)have a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails. Answer: e Level: 1 10. Which of the following is correctly matched with its function? A)channel proteins – are part of an intercellular communication system B)marker molecules – are primarily steroidsC)receptor molecules – attach to ligand molecules. D)peripheral proteins – penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the other. E)nongated ion channels – are always closed. Answer: c Level: 1 11. In general, water-soluble molecules diffuse through the ______ ______; and lipid-soluble molecules diffuse through the ______ ______. A)protein channels; protein channels B)protein channels; bilipid lay er C)bilipid layer; protein channels D)bilipid layer; bilipid layer E)none of the above Answer: b Level: 2 12. Cell membrane phospholipids A)have nonpolar fatty acid tails. B)form a bilayer. C)have polar phosphate heads.D)create a selectively permeable barrier. E)all of the above Answer: e Level: 1 13. When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in the electrical charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins close. These channels would be called A)open-gated channels. B)voltage-gated channels. C)chemical-gated channels. D)ligand-gated channels. E)nongated ion channels. Answer: b Level: 2 14. Communication between cells occurs when chemical messengers from one cell bind to _____ on another cell. A)channel proteins B)receptor molecules C)marker molecules D)second messengersE)integrins. Answer: b Level: 1 15. Channel proteins A)are binding sites for other molecules. B)utilize the G protein complex to function. C)are found only on endoplasmi c reticulum. D)allow cells to recognize one another. E)provide a â€Å"door† through which extracellular molecules can enter the cell Answer: e Level: 1 16. Molecules that serve as chemical signals in cell to cell communication are called A)isotopes. B)ligands. C)responders. D)communicators. E)membrane potentials. Answer: b Level: 1 17. Cells that respond to ligands A)possess receptor sites for specific ligands. B)generally produce the ligands.C)have lysosomes that destroy the ligands. D)are using electrical signals in cellualar communication. E)are not functional. Answer: a Level: 1 18. Membrane-bound receptors A)are small, lipid soluble molecules. B)have their receptor sites on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. C)can interact with DNA in the nucleus. D)do not exhibit specificity. E)have no effect on the cell. Answer: b Level: 1 19. Consider the following events and choose the one that occurs last. A)Acetylcholine is released from neurons. B)Acetylcholine diffuses ac ross the synapse to the receptor. C)Na+ ion channels in the plasma membrane are opened.D)Acetylcholine binds to membrane-bound receptors on skeletal muscle cells E)Na+ ions diffuse into skeletal muscle cells. Answer: e Level: 2 20. G proteins are found associated with the A)nucleus. B)cytoplasm. C)Golgi body. D)plasma membrane. E)ribosome. Answer: d Level: 1 21. Communication between cells is essential to coordinate the activity of the trillions of cell that make up the human body. Which of the following is (are) directly involved in carrying out communication between cells? A)lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane B)receptor molecules of plasma membrane C)chemical signal molecules released by cells D)mitochondriaE)b and c Answer: e Level: 1 22. The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. This means A)only gases and water can pass through it. B)substances need permission to pass through it. C)only certain substances can pass through it. D)substances need carrier molecules to pass th rough it. E)ATP is always needed to move molecules across the plasma membrane. Answer: c Level: 1 23. Vitamin A, a fat-soluble vitamin, would move across the plasma membrane into the cell A)in vesicles. B)through vitamin membrane channels. C)by dissolving in the lipid bilayer. D)by transport with carrier molecules. E)by active transport. Answer: c Level: 2 24.Which of the following statements concerning membrane transport across the plasma membrane is true? A)Polar molecules are transported more easily than nonpolar molecules. B)Lipid-soluble substances pass through the membrane by dissolving in the lipid bilayer. C)Water cannot move through the membrane. D)Generally, cations pass through the membrane more easily than anions. E)All molecules are moved across by active transport. Answer: b Level: 1 25. The aroma of cookies baking in the kitchen reaches you in the living room. The distribution of this odor throughout the house is an example of A)active transport. B)dialysis. C)osmosis . D)filtration.E)simple diffusion. Answer: e Level: 2 26. In the process of diffusion, net movement of substances is always from a region A)outside the cell to a region inside the cell. B)inside the cell to a region outside the cell. C)of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. D)of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. E)none of the above Answer: d Level: 1 27. Which of the following will increase the rate of diffusion? A)an increase in the viscosity of the solvent B)an increase in the temperature C)an increase in the molecular weight of the diffusing particles D)an increase in the distance the molecules have to travelE)all of the above Answer: b Level: 1 28. Salt was added to a beaker of distilled water (the water was not stirred). A sample taken from the bottom of the beaker was found to be 20% salt. At the same time, a sample taken from the top of the beaker was found to be 2% salt. After 24 hours A)the difference in the percentage of salt bet ween the top and bottom samples would increase. B)the percentage of salt in top and bottom samples would be approximately equal. C)the samples would still be 2% and 20% respectively. D)the salt would float to the top. E)none of the above Answer: b Level: 2 29.The movement of oxygen from the alveoli of the lungs into the bloodstream is an example of A)diffusion. B)osmosis. C)active transport. D)bulk transport. E)facilitated diffusion. Answer: a Level: 2 30. Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a selectively permeable membrane. A)urea B)oxygen C)water D)sodium E)sugar Answer: c Level: 1 31. Solution A contains 5 grams of sugar per liter while solution B contains 2 grams of sugar per liter. The solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If the solvent in both solutions is water, predict in which direction most of the water molecules will move.A)move by simple diffusion from solution A to solution B B)move by osmosis from solution B to solution A C)move by active t ransport from solution B to solution A D)move by filtration from solution A to solution B E)there will be no movement of water Answer: b Level: 3 32. The greater the concentration of a solution, the greater A)the tendency for water to diffuse from the solution. B)the osmotic pressure of the solution. C)the number of carrier molecules present. D)the amount of solvent. E)the rate of facilitated diffusion. Answer: b Level: 1 33. A red blood cell that is placed in a hypertonic solution, A)gains water.B)loses water. C)floats. D)ruptures. E)neither gains nor loses water. Answer: b Level: 2 34. If 0. 9% saline solution is isotonic to a cell, then a 0. 5% saline solution A)is hypertonic to the cell. B)will cause crenation of the cell. C)is hypotonic to the cell. D)will shrink the cell. E)will not affect the cell. Answer: c Level: 2 35. A person suffered from burns over a large part of his body. Evaporation of fluid from the surface of burned areas occurs. As a result of the evaporation proc ess, cells will tend to A)shrink. B)swell. C)rupture. D)first swell and then resume their original shape. E)remain unchanged. Answer: aLevel: 2 36. Plasma has an osmolality of 300 mOsm. A solution isosmotic with plasma has an osmolality of A)150 mOsm. B)300 mOsm. C)450 mOsm. D)600 mOsm. E)900 mOsm. Answer: b Level: 2 37. A runner produced hypotonic sweat while running a marathon in hot weather. After the race he drank large volumes of water, as a result of the water intake his body cells will A)shrink. B)swell. C)crenate. D)shrivel. E)not change. Answer: b Level: 2 38. The movement of a solution across a plasma membrane because of a pressure gradient is called A)diffusion. B)osmosis. C)facilitated diffusion. D)active transport. E)filtration. Answer: eLevel: 1 39. Which of the following would increase the rate of mediated transport? A)increase the number of available carrier molecules B)change the shape of the binding site on the carrier molecule C)increase the number of competitive molecules D)fill all binding sites on carrier molecules E)remove the binding site on the carrier molecule Answer: a Level: 2 40. A particular membrane transport process exhibits saturation, uses carrier molecules, but does not require ATP. The process is probably A)active transport. B)facilitated diffusion. C)osmosis. D)pinocytosis. E)phagocytosis. Answer: b Level: 2 41. Active transportA)follows osmotic pressure gradients. B)can move substances along their concentration gradient. C)does not requires metabolic energy (ATP). D)involves vesicle formation. E)requires ATP. Answer: e Level: 1 42. Which of the following are consistent with active transport? 1. movement is against a concentration gradient 2. movement is with a concentration gradient 3. involves a carrier molecule 4. can involve cotransport 5. can involve counter transport 6. exhibits competition and saturation A)1, 3, 4, 5, 6 B)2, 3, 4, 5 C)2, 3, 4, 5, 6 D)1, 3, 4, 6 E)1, 3, 5, 6 Answer: a Level: 2 43. Cyanide stops the pr oduction of ATP.Which of the following processes would be affected? A)simple diffusion B)osmosis C)active transport D)facilitated diffusion E)filtration Answer: c Level: 2 44. The sodium-potassium exchange pump located in the plasma membrane A)actively transports potassium into cells. B)osmotically moves sodium into cells. C)actively transports water out of cells. D)moves chlorine out of cells. E)actively transports sodium into cells. Answer: a Level: 1 45. When ions or molecules involved in secondary active transport move in the same direction, the process is called A)facilitated diffusion. B)counter-transport. C)exocytosis. D)cotransport. E)endocytosis.Answer: d Level: 1 46. Which of the following events occurs in the secondary active transport of glucose? A)Na+ ions and glucose are cotransported by the same carrier molecule. B)The Na+-K+ pump maintains a Na+ concentration gradient inside the cell. C)Energy comes from diffusion of Na+ down their concentration gradient. D)Glucose i s moved against its concentration gradient into the cell. E)all of the above Answer: e Level: 2 47. A group of cells was treated with a proteolytic (protein-digesting) enzyme. Which of the following processes would be least affected by this treatment? A)diffusion of sodium through sodium membrane channelsB)diffusion of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane C)use of carrier molecules in facilitated diffusion D)sodium-potassium exchange pump E)secondary active transport Answer: b Level: 2 48. Certain cells in the liver ingest bacteria and debris from damaged cells by a process called A)pinocytosis. B)phagocytosis. C)biocytosis. D)calmly regulated diffusion. E)exocytosis. Answer: b Level: 2 49. Pinocytosis A)is a form of exocytosis. B)involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles. C)does not require ATP. D)forms vesicles only when large amounts of material are being transported. E)does not require the formation of vesicles.Answer: b Level: 1 50. Endocytosis A)is mov ement of water through a selectively permeable membrane. B)is a process that requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy. C)is the bulk uptake of material through the plasma membrane by vesicle formation. D)moves material out of the cell. E)ends cell functions. Answer: c Level: 1 51. Arrange the following events of exocytosis in the correct sequence: 1. vesicle membrane fuses with plasma membrane 2. secretory vesicles migrate to plasma membrane 3. vesicle contents are expelled from cell 4. secretions accumulate within secretory vesicles A)2, 1, 4, 3B)1, 4, 2, 3 C)3, 1, 4, 2 D)4, 2, 1, 3 E)1, 2, 3, 4 Answer: d Level: 3 52. Receptor-mediated endocytosis A)does not need ATP; the receptors supply the energy. B)exhibits specificity. C)occurs if oxygen is available. D)is a type of passive transport. E)moves materials out of the cell. Answer: b Level: 1 53. Which of the following are consistent with facilitated diffusion? 1. movement is against a concentration gradient 2. movement is with a concentration gradient 3. involves a carrier molecule 4. involves cotransport 5. involves counter transport 6. exhibits competition and saturation A)1, 2, 4, 5, 6 B)2, 3, 6C)2, 3, 5, 6 D)1, 3, 4, 5, 6 E)2, 3, 4, 6 Answer: b Level: 2 54. Which of the following would increase the maximum rate of facilitated diffusion? A)increase the concentration gradient of the transported molecule B)decrease the concentration gradient of the transported molecule C)increase the concentration of the competitive molecules D)increased ATP synthesis E)none of the above Answer: e Level: 3 55. If a toxic drug inhibited mRNA synthesis, which of the following would be most directly affected? A)protein synthesis B)intracellular digestion C)microtubule production D)secretion of glycoproteins and lipoproteinsE)active transport Answer: a Level: 2 56. Cytoplasm is found A)in the nucleus. B)outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane. C)in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum. D)on the cristae of the mitochondria. E)between the phospholipids in the plasma membrane. Answer: b Level: 1 57. The cytoskeleton consists of A)lipochromes, microfilaments, and microtubules. B)actin filaments, mitochondria, and intermediate filaments. C)microfilaments, mitochondria, and lipochromes. D)microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments. E)ribosomes, the nucleus, and the Golgi apparatus. Answer: d Level: 1 58.Absence of a cytoskeleton might affect A)cell shape. B)the number of channel proteins in the cell membrane. C)the ability of the cell to generate energy. D)vesicle formation. E)membrane transport. Answer: a Level: 1 59. Microtubules A)are the smallest components of the cytoskeleton. B)contains the protein myosin. C)provide structure and support to the cytoplasm. D)are solid, supporting rods of protein. E)are a component of mitochondria. Answer: c Level: 1 60. Of the organelles listed, which one does not contain microtubules? A)cilia B)flagella C)centrioles D)mi crovilli E)basal bodies Answer: d Level: 1 61.Organelles A)are extracellular structures. B)are unspecialized portions of a cell. C)generally lack membranes. D)vary in number and type depending on cell function. E)are structural, but not functional parts of the cell. Answer: d Level: 2 62. Which of the following organelles function in the destruction of nonfunctional organelles? A)endoplasmic reticulum B)centrioles C)basal bodies D)lysosomes E)mitochondria Answer: d Level: 1 63. Ribosomes are organelles responsible for A)protein synthesis. B)manufacturing lipids. C)cell movement and cell shape. D)packaging â€Å"cell products† for export. E)energy production.Answer: a Level: 1 64. Cells that lack ribosomes cannot A)produce energy. B)eliminate wastes. C)engage in protein synthesis. D)package cellular products. E)ingest and phagocytize bacteria. Answer: c Level: 1 65. Skeletal muscle cells need large numbers of _______ to make the many proteins they contain. A)centrosomes B)pero xisomes C)liposomes D)ribosomes E)lysosomes Answer: d Level: 2 66. If you compare a cell with a manufacturing plant that exports goods, the cell's _____ could be compared to the manufacturing plant's shipping department. A)nucleus B)lysosome C)Golgi apparatus D)endoplasmic reticulumE)ribosome Answer: c Level: 2 67. The organelle that protects cells from the damaging effects of medications and toxins is the A)ribosome. B)microtubule. C)secretory vesicle. D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum. E)mitochondria. Answer: d Level: 1 68. The function of the Golgi apparatus is A)packaging and distribution of proteins and lipids. B)production of microtubules. C)excretion of excess salt. D)DNA replication. E)energy production. Answer: a Level: 1 69. Endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached to it is called A)smooth ER. B)dendritic ER. C)nodular ER. D)bumpy ER. E)rough ER. Answer: e Level: 1 70.A cell that produces many proteins for secretion from the cell would have large numbers of A)rough ER an d Golgi. B)lysosomes and Golgi. C)Golgi and microvilli. D)ribosomes and centrioles. E)mitochondria and cilia. Answer: a Level: 2 71. Arrange the following in correct sequence: 1. Protein moves through ER and then carried in vesicles to Golgi. 2. Vesicle pinches off from Golgi and carries product to plasma membrane. 3. Golgi modifies protein and then packages them into vesicles. 4. Protein made by ribosomes on rough ER. A)1, 2, 3, 4 B)4, 1, 3, 2 C)2, 3, 1, 4 D)3, 2, 4, 1 E)4, 3, 2, 1 Answer: b Level: 2 72.A toxic drug destroyed the Golgi apparatus. This would affect A)ribosomal RNA synthesis. B)intracellular digestion. C)energy production. D)microtubule production. E)packaging of glycoproteins and lipoproteins. Answer: e Level: 2 73. The intracellular digestive system of a cell is the A)lysosome. B)microtubule. C)lipochrome. D)rough endoplasmic reticulum. E)smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: a Level: 1 74. White blood cells eat other cells and would be expected to A)have large num bers of lysosomes. B)possess cilia on their surfaces so they can move quickly. C)excrete excess salt as a result of all this eating.D)expel their nuclei to make room for all of the cells they eat. E)have mitochondria to energize them. Answer: a Level: 2 75. Which of the following activities is associated with lysosomes? A)exocytosis B)intracellular support C)destruction of nonfunctional organelles D)energy production E)endocytosis Answer: c Level: 1 76. A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in A)secretion. B)storage of glycogen. C)detoxification activities. D)cellular communication. E)protein synthesis. Answer: c Level: 1 77. Damaged cells can destroy nearby healthy cells when they release ________ enzymes. A)mitochondrialB)nuclear C)microtubular D)lysosomal E)cytoplasmic Answer: d Level: 1 78. A cell's ability to replenish ATP is reduced by a metabolic poison. Which organelle is being affected? A)nucleus B)centriole C)microtubule D)mitochondrion E)ribosomes Answer: d Level: 2 79. Experimental manipulation to increase the energy output of the cell might include A)rupturing the lysosomes in the cell. B)increasing the number of mitochondria. C)decreasing nuclear size. D)removing some of the ribosomes. E)increasing protein synthesis. Answer: b Level: 1 80. Which of the following terms does not relate to the mitochondria? A)cristaeB)self-replicating C)outer and inner membranes D)ATP E)vitamin A storage Answer: e Level: 1 81. When a person trains for running long distances, which of the following organelles increase in his/her muscles? A)rough endoplasmic reticulum B)enzymes for glycolysis C)basal bodies D)lysosomes E)mitochondria Answer: e Level: 2 82. You are looking at a cell with the electron microscope and you notice the following characteristics: presence of many mitochondria and lysosomes; few, if any, Golgi; and many ribosomes. Which of the following is the most likely function of that cell? A)secretion of lipids B)intracellular dig estionC)DNA replication D)modification of protein E)absorption of nutrients Answer: b Level: 2 83. Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? A)mitochondria – cristae B)Golgi apparatus – cisternae C)lysosomes – hydrolytic enzymes D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum — chromatin E)cilia – basal bodies Answer: d Level: 1 84. Mitochondria A)contains DNA. B)have inner and outer membranes. C)have inner folds called cristae. D)are the cell’s power plants. E)all of the above Answer: e Level: 1 85. Which of the following cell organelles is correctly matched with its function? A)nucleolus – contains the genetic material of the cellB)microtubules – cell support C)mitochondria – protein synthesis D)smooth ER – ATP production E)ribosome – energy production Answer: b Level: 1 86. A cell can meet increased energy demands by an A)increase in its overall size so it has more room to generate energy. B)increase in the nu mber of mitochondria. C)increase in lysosomal enzyme and ribosome activity within the cell. D)increase in nuclear DNA activity. E)increase in ribosomal subunits. Answer: b Level: 1 87. A cell uses centrioles in the process of A)cell division. B)energy generation. C)protein synthesis. D)RNA replication. E)nuclear centering.Answer: a Level: 1 88. Cilia and flagella are distinguished from each other on the basis of A)width and numbers. B)length and numbers. C)depth and numbers. D)length and width. E)none of the above Answer: b Level: 1 89. Microvilli A)are extensions of the lysosomal membrane. B)function to make the cell mobile. C)are supported by microtubules. D)move the cell. E)increase the surface area of the cell. Answer: e Level: 1 90. Which of the following cell organelles does not contain microtubules? A)cilia B)flagella C)spindle fibers D)centrioles E)All of the above contain microtubules. Answer: e Level: 1 91.The â€Å"control center† of the cell is the A)nucleus. B)ri bosome. C)mitochondrion. D)plasma membrane. E)endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: a Level: 1 92. Which of the following events occurs in the nucleus? A)large and small ribosomal subunits combine B)ribosomal proteins formed C)large and small ribosomal subunits form D)formation of free ribosomes E)None of the above occur in the nucleus. Answer: c Level: 1 93. Which of the following structures is found in the nucleus? A)cristae B)cytosol C)cisternae D)chromosome E)flattened membrane sacs Answer: d Level: 1 94. The nucleus of a cell functions to A)digest lipids.B)produce ATP. C)produce secretory vesicles. D)control and coordinate cellular activities. E)synthesize proteins. Answer: d Level: 1 95. Nucleoli A)are located in the cytoplasm. B)produce ribosomal subunits. C)have a distinct membrane. D)are important for the formation of the Golgi apparatus. E)regulates movement of materials into the nucleus. Answer: b Level: 1 96. Which of the following correctly matches a nuclear structure with its function? A)chromosomes – contains RNA and histones B)nuclear envelope – contains the nucleolar organizer C)nuclear pores – allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm.D)chromatin – fluid portion of the nucleus E)nucleolus – DNA synthesis Answer: c Level: 1 97. Glycolysis A)converts glycogen to glucose. B)reduces pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and water. C)converts glucose to pyruvic acid. D)is oxygen dependent. E)does not occur in the cell. Answer: c Level: 1 98. Aerobic respiration occurs when _______ is available. A)carbon dioxide B)oxygen C)lactic acid D)light E)nitrogen Answer: b Level: 1 99. Anaerobic respiration A)occurs in cells when oxygen supplies do not meet cell demands. B)produces 38 ATP molecules per glucose molecule. C)occurs in the mitochondria.D)frequently involves the electron transport system. E)is referred to as the â€Å"citric acid cycle. † Answer: a Level: 1 100. Messenger RNA A)is synthesized when a por tion of a DNA molecule is transcribed. B)directs the synthesis of DNA. C)determines the sequence of nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA. D)directs the synthesis of centrioles in the cytoplasm. E)is not involved in the synthesis of proteins. Answer: a Level: 1 101. The transfer of information from DNA to messenger RNA (mRNA) is known as A)transduction. B)translocation. C)translation. D)transcription. E)transmutation. Answer: d Level: 1 102.Which of the following sequences is correct? A)translation ( protein synthesis ( transcription B)transcription ( translation ( protein synthesis C)transcription ( protein synthesis ( translation D)translation ( transcription ( protein synthesis E)protein synthesis ( translation (transcription Answer: b Level: 1 103. Translation A)requires three types of DNA. B)requires the pairing of codons on mRNA with anticodons on tRNA. C)involves synthesis of RNA from DNA molecules. D)takes place in the nucleus. E)requires replication of DNA. Answer: b Level: 1 104. Which of the following molecules contains the anticodon?A)mRNA B)rRNA C)tRNA D)DNA E)none of the above Answer: c Level: 1 105. If a mRNA molecule is 1800 nucleotides (bases) in length, this molecule will contain _____ codons. A)400 B)600 C)800 D)900 E)1200 Answer: b Level: 2 106. The sequence of nucleotides in a messenger RNA molecule is needed to determine the A)sequence of nucleotides in a gene. B)sequence of amino acids in a protein. C)sequence of nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA. D)sequence of codons in DNA. E)sequence of amino acids in DNA. Answer: b Level: 1 107. Transcription A)requires three types of RNA. B)synthesizes RNA from DNA.C)occurs at the ribosomes. D)copies information from mRNA to tRNA. E)synthesizes DNA from RNA. Answer: b Level: 1 108. A DNA base sequence is A T G C C G. The sequence of bases in a strand of mRNA transcribed from this sequence of bases in DNA would be A)T A C G G C. B)U T C G G U. C)U A C G G C. D)A U G C C G. E)T A G G G G Answer: c Level: 2 109. The anticodon sequence GUA pairs with which of the following codons? A)CAT B)GUA C)CTU D)CAU E)CTT Answer: d Level: 2 110. Posttranscriptional processing is the modification of A)proteins to form pro-proteins. B)mRNA to form tRNA. C)pre-mRNA to form functional mRNA.D)exons to form introns. E)DNA. Answer: c Level: 1 111. Determine the sequence of the following events in a cell after exposure of the cell to a chemical signal. 1. increased synthesis of a protein 2. the chemical signal combined with a cytoplasmic receptor 3. an increase in the nuclear concentration of the chemical 4. an increase in mRNA synthesis 5. genes are activated A)2, 1, 3, 5, 4 B)2, 4, 5, 3, 2 C)2, 3, 5, 4, 1 D)2, 3, 4, 5, 1 E)1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Answer: c Level: 3 112. DNA replication results in two new DNA molecules. Each of these new molecules A)has two newly synthesized strands of nucleotides.B)has one strand of nucleotides from the parent DNA and one newly synthesized strand of nucleotides. C)has tw o strands of nucleotides from the parent. D)has a single strand of nucleotides. E)are incomplete copies of the original. Answer: b Level: 1 113. In DNA replication, A)the leading strand is formed as a continuous strand. B)new nucleotides are added at the 5†² end of the growing DNA strand. C)DNA polymerase splices the short segments of the lagging strand together. D)only introns are replicated. E)the two existing strands are not used as templates. Answer: a Level: 1 114. MitosisA)forms two daughter cells with half the DNA of the mother cell. B)forms two daughter cells with the same amount of DNA as the mother cell. C)forms daughter cells called gametes. D)forms two daughter cells with twice the amount of DNA as the mother cell. E)forms one daughter cell and another incomplete cell. Answer: b Level: 1 115. Human somatic cells contain _____ chromosomes, human gametes contain _____ chromosomes. A)23; 46 B)23; 23 C)46; 46 D)46; 23 E)92; 46 Answer: d Level: 1 116. DNA synthesis occur s during A)the G1 phase of interphase. B)telophase. C)the S phase of interphase. D)anaphase. E)metaphase. Answer: cLevel: 1 117. In prophase A)the chromosomes condense, shorten, and thicken. B)the spindle fibers disappear. C)the chromosomes replicate. D)cytokinesis occurs. E)DNA is synthesized. Answer: a Level: 1 118. Which of the following events occurs during anaphase? A)Chromatin strands condense to form chromosomes. B)Chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell. C)Spindle fibers are formed. D)The nuclear envelope degenerates. E)Cytokinesis Answer: b Level: 1 119. Meiosis is the process of cell division that results in the formation of A)skin cells. B)gametes (egg and sperm). C)diploid cells. D)malignant cells. E)somatic cells.Answer: b Level: 1 120. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence. 1. pairs of homologous chromosomes separate 2. tetrad formation occurs 3. second meiotic division 4. tetrads align at the equatorial plate 5. interkinesis A)1, 3, 5, 2, 4 B)2, 4, 1, 5, 3 C)3, 1, 4, 5, 2 D)4, 1, 2, 5, 3 E)2, 4, 1, 3, 5 Answer: b Level: 2 121. Each of the cells that result from meiosis A)has the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. B)has half the number of chromosomes as the original cell. C)has one-fourth the number of chromosomes as the original cell. D)has twice the number of chromosomes as the original cell.E)has no chromosomes Answer: b Level: 1 122. Crossing over A)occurs during mitosis. B)increases the amount of genetic diversity. C)results in the formation of chromatids with the same DNA sequences. D)form tetrads. E)decreases the amount of genetic diversity. Answer: b Level: 1 Refer to the following diagram for questions 123-127. [pic] 123. What structure does â€Å"A† represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? A)membrane channel protein B)phospholipid bilayer C)internal membrane surface D)peripheral protein E)receptor protein Answer: b Level: 1 124. What structure does â€Å"B† represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?A)membrane channel protein B)phospholipid bilayer C)internal membrane surface D)peripheral protein E)receptor protein Answer: a Level: 1 125. What structure does â€Å"C† represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? A)membrane channel protein B)phospholipid bilayer C)internal membrane surface D)peripheral protein E)receptor protein Answer: e Level: 1 126. What structure does â€Å"D† represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? A)membrane channel protein B)phospholipid bilayer C)internal membrane surface D)peripheral protein E)receptor protein Answer: d Level: 1 127. What structure does â€Å"E† represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?A)membrane channel protein B)phospholipid bilayer C)internal membrane surface D)peripheral protein E)receptor protein Answer: c Level: 1 Refer to the following diagram for questions 128-132. [pic] 128. Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic , hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution â€Å"A† relative to the RBC? A)hypotonic solution B)hypertonic solution C)isotonic solution D)hemolyzed E)crenated Answer: c Level: 3 129. Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution â€Å"B† relative to the RBC? A)hypotonic solutionB)hypertonic solution C)isotonic solution D)hemolyzed E)crenated Answer: b Level: 3 130. Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution â€Å"C† relative to the RBC? A)hypotonic solution B)hypertonic solution C)isotonic solution D)hemolyzed E)crenated Answer: a Level: 3 131. Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is the condition of the RBC in solution â€Å"C†? A)hypotonic solution B)hypertonic solution C)isotonic solution D)hemolyzed E)crenated Answer: d Level: 3 132.Re d blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is the condition of the RBC in solution â€Å"B†? A)hypotonic solution B)hypertonic solution C)isotonic solution D)hemolyzed E)crenated Answer: e Level: 3 Refer to the following diagram for questions 133-137. [pic] 133. The diagram is an overview of cell metabolism. What does â€Å"A† represent? A)Glucose B)2 lactic acid + 2 ATP C)O2 D)6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 38 ATP E)Pyruvic acid Answer: e Level: 1 134. The diagram is an overview of cell metabolism. What does â€Å"B† represent? A)Glucose B)2 lactic acid + 2 ATP C)O2 D)6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 38 ATP E)Pyruvic acidAnswer: c Level: 1 135. The diagram is an overview of cell metabolism. What does â€Å"C† represent? A)Glucose B)2 lactic acid + 2 ATP C)O2 D)6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 38 ATP E)Pyruvic acid Answer: b Level: 1 136. The diagram is an overview of cell metabolism. What does â€Å"D† represent? A)Glucose B)2 lactic acid + 2 ATP C)O2 D)6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 38 ATP E)Pyruvic acid Answer: a Level: 1 137. The diagram is an overview of cell metabolism. What does â€Å"E† represent? A)Glucose B)2 lactic acid + 2 ATP C)O2 D)6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 38 ATP E)Pyruvic acid Answer: d Level: 1 For questions 138 to 142 match the following processes with the appropriate definition or description.A)requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy B)bulk uptake of material by the formation of a vesicle C)movement of substances from areas of high concentration to areas of less concentration D)movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane E)movement of molecules against their concentration gradient 138. active transport Answer: e Level: 1 139. diffusion Answer: c Level: 1 140. endocytosis Answer: b Level: 1 141. facilitated diffusion Answer: a Level: 1 142. osmosis Answer: d Level: 1 For questions 143 to 147 match the following types of membrane proteins to its function.A)have exposed site on outer cell surface that can attach to ligand B)integral proteins that move ions or molecules across plasma membrane C)form a passageway through the plasma membrane D)allow cells to identify one another E)proteins that can catalyze chemical reactions on inner or outer surface of plasma membrane 143. Marker molecules Answer: d Level: 1 144. Channel protein Answer: c Level: 1 145. Receptor molecules Answer: a Level: 1 146. Enzymes Answer: e Level: 1 147. Carrier proteins Answer: b Level: 1 For questions 148 to 152 match the following cell organelles with the appropriate definition or description.A)source of the spindle fibers B)organelles that produce most of the cell’s energy C)sacs containing hydrolytic enzymes D)sites of protein synthesis E)contains the chromosomes 148. nucleus Answer: e Level: 1 149. ribosomes Answer: d Level: 1 150. lysosomes Answer: c Level: 1 151. mitochondria Answer: b Level: 1 152. centrioles Answer: a Level: 1 For questions 153 to 157 match the followi ng descriptions with the appropriate metabolic pathway. A)aerobic respiration B)anaerobic respiration 153. occurs without oxygen Answer: b Level: 1 154. uses the citric acid cycle and electron transport chain Answer: a Level: 1 155. ccurs in the mitochondria with oxygen Answer: a Level: 1 156. converts pyruvic acid to lactic acid Answer: b Level: 1 157. produces carbon dioxide, water, and ATP Answer: a Level: 1 For questions 158 to 162 match the following cell organelles with the appropriate definition or description. A)organelle where subunits of ribosomes are manufactured B)an organelle of locomotion C)may or may not have ribosomes attached D)small vacuoles containing oxidative enzymes E)package materials for secretion from the cell 158. endoplasmic reticulum Answer: c Level: 1 159. Golgi apparatus Answer: e Level: 1 160. nucleolus Answer: a Level: 1 61. peroxisomes Answer: d Level: 1 162. flagellum Answer: b Level: 1 For questions 163 to 167 match the following stages of the cell cycle with the appropriate description. A)chromosomes align along equator B)cytokinesis is completed at the end of this phase C)time between cell divisions D)chromatin condenses and nucleoli disappear E)chromosomes begin migrating towards poles of the cell 163. interphase Answer: c Level: 1 164. prophase Answer: d Level: 1 165. metaphase Answer: a Level: 1 166. anaphase Answer: e Level: 1 167. telophase Answer: b Level: 1 For questions 168 to 172 match the following molecules with the appropriate escription. A)structural RNA of ribosome B)mRNA containing introns C)protein that is converted to an active enzyme D)all triplets required to code for synthesis of a protein E)three adjacent nucleotides in mRNA 168. pre-mRNA Answer: b Level: 1 169. proenzyme Answer: c Level: 1 170. gene Answer: d Level: 1 171. ribosomal RNA (rRNA) Answer: a Level: 1 172. codon Answer: e Level: 1 For questions 173 to 176 match the cells described with their most abundant organelle. A)mitochondria B)centriol es C)peroxisomes D)lysosomes E) Golgi apparatus 173. white blood cell, a phagocyte Answer: d Level: 2 174. mucus cell (secretes mucus)Answer: e Level: 2 175. liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide Answer: c Level: 2 176. cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) Answer: a Level: 2 For questions 177 to 184 match the type of cell division with the appropriate description. A)mitosis B)meiosis C)both mitosis & meiosis 177. Responsible for tissue growth and repair Answer: a Level: 2 178. Resulting cells are haploid Answer: b Level: 2 179. Occurs only in testis and ovary Answer: b Level: 2 180. Daughter cells genetically identical to mother cell Answer: a Level: 2 181. DNA replication occurs only once Answer: c Level: 2 182. Tetrad formation occursAnswer: b Level: 2 183. Cytokinesis occurs only once Answer: a Level: 2 184. Crossing over Answer: b Level: 2 For questions 185 to 189 match the following terms relative to theories about cell death and cell aging to the most appr opriate description. A)portions of DNA are lost over time resulting in cell death B)loss of the energy source in the cell C)genes that turn on late in life that cause cell death D)after a certain amount of time or cell divisions, the cell line dies E)atoms or molecules with unpaired electrons that may damage cells 185. Cellular clock Answer: d Level: 1 186. Mitochondrial damage Answer: bLevel: 1 187. DNA damage Answer: a Level: 1 188. Free radicals Answer: e Level: 1 189. Death gene Answer: c Level: 1 Fill in the Blank 190. The predominant lipid in the cell membrane is a _____________. Answer: phospholipid Level: 1 191. Glycolipids would contain both lipids and _____________. Answer: carbohydrates Level: 1 192. The _____________ contains the genetic information of the cell. Answer: nucleus Level: 1 193. Cytosol is part of _____________. Answer: cytoplasm Level: 1 194. The centrioles are found in a zone of cytoplasm close to the nucleus called the _____________. Answer: centrosome Le vel: 1 195.At the base of each cilium is a structure called the _____________. Answer: basal body Level: 1 196. The shaft of a flagellum contains _____________ microtubule doublets around its periphery. Answer: nine (9) Level: 1 197. _____________ is the force required to prevent the movement of water by osmosis across a semipermeable membrane. Answer: osmotic pressure Level: 1 198. In _____________, ions or molecules move in opposite directions. Answer: counter transport Level: 1 199. _____________ is the sum of catabolism and anabolism. Answer: metabolism Level: 1 200. According to base pair rules, adenine pairs with _____________ in DNA replication.Answer: thymine Level: 1 201. In females, the sex chromosomes look alike and are called _____________. Answer: X chromosomes Level: 1 202. The term for â€Å"programmed cell death† is ______________. Answer: apoptosis Level: 1 Essay Questions 203. Explain what would happen to a cell in each of the following events: a. A cell los t its nucleus b. All the lysosomes ruptured c. The phospholipids in the cell membrane were dissolved d. The cell began losing its mitochondria e. The transfer RNA molecules are selectively destroyed by viruses. Answer: (a) Without a nucleus cells are unable to synthesize mRNA and so cannot complete protein synthesis.Lack of a nucleus also prevents cells from duplicating themselves. A cell without a nucleus will have a short life span and eventually die. (b) Rupture of the lysosomes releases hydrolytic enzymes that begin to digest the cell and kill it. (c) If the phospholipids in the cell membrane are dissolved, the membrane loses its integrity and would no longer function as a selective barrier. (d) Loss of mitochondria reduces the capacity of the cell to generate energy. (e) If transfer RNA molecules are selectively destroyed, protein synthesis would be inhibited as no amino acids would be brought to the ribosomes.Level: 2, 1 204. Adriamycin is a chemotherapeutic drug that binds to DNA and blocks messenger RNA synthesis. Explain why this drug is fatal to a cell. Answer: When adriamycin blocks mRNA synthesis, it also blocks further protein synthesis in those cells. These cells cannot synthesize additional proteins (structural or enzymatic) that they might need. They will soon be unable to function, and they will die. Level: 2 205. Lysosomes remove nonfunctional cell parts. Explain how this function is important to the overall health of the cell. Answer: Nonfunctional cell parts take up valuable space in the cell.They are also composed of molecules that the cell might be able to recycle. It is healthier for the cell to be able to eliminate these nonfunctional parts and possibly reuse some of the molecular components of those parts. Level: 2 206. The cell is compartmentalized by the presence of organelles. What advantage does compartmentalization give to the cell? Answer: Compartmentalization enables cells to specialize internally. By partitioning the interior o f a cell, different functions can be undertaken in different structured compartments within the same cell.This property allows cells to do more than one thing. Level: 2 207. Describe the relationship among ribosomes, ER, the Golgi apparatus, and exocytosis. Answer: Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis. Some of the proteins have leader sequences on them, which allow them to be inserted into the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticula to which the ribosomes are attached. The proteins can travel in the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus, where they can be modified and packaged for secretion. Vesicles break off from the flattened membranous sacs of the Golgi apparatus.Some of the vesicles carry proteins to the plasma membrane, where the proteins can be secreted from the cell by exocytosis. Level: 2 208. You work for the I. M. the Best Drug Company. Your latest assignment is to design a drug that interferes with translation in cells. You decide the easiest way to do this is to have your drug target those organelles and molecules involved in translation. List the potential targets of your new drug. Answer: Potential targets include: large and small ribosomal subunits, messenger RNA, transfer RNA, any enzyme needed in translation. Level: 2

Tuesday, July 30, 2019

Specialization in Undergraduates

Brady Brajavich Specialization: does it belong in higher education? Some say yes, because it creates much more intelligent individuals in their respective fields. Others say no, because without the liberal arts, individuals will lack the necessary skills to succeed in today’s work environment. Both sides have well supported arguments, and often when one begins to think they’ve made a decision on which they agree with, they are swayed the other way. After reading, â€Å"Should Undergraduates Specialize? † by Patrick Allit, and, â€Å"Liberal Arts: A Practical View. by Mark Jackson, I have formed my opinion and what I feel like is a suitable answer to the question above. I believe that students should have a choice. If they feel like they’re ready to dive into what they know they want to do, let them. But if the student feels like they aren’t one hundred percent sure, they should be able to take a wide variety of courses that allow them to eventually choose a major to specialize. Patrick Allitt is the author of the essay, â€Å"Should Undergraduates Specialize? † In this essay he compares and contrasts his own experiences in college with those of his college-bound daughter.By comparing the two, he provides evidence to his belief that having the option to specialize as an undergraduate will benefit students. This is shown in his conclusion, â€Å"Students with the right frame of mind thrive on studying diverse subjects until they’re ready, sometimes at age twenty or older, to make a stronger commitment. But let’s get rid of the idea that liberal arts is for everyone. America’s commitment to equality and to universal education is noble and invigorating. But it shouldn’t mean that one size fits all† (Allitt 7).Here Patrick is summarizing his essay, and essentially says that liberal arts may benefit some students, but there is a certain percentage that would prefer to get busy with their ma jor and specialize. Mark Jackson, a graduate from the University of Cincinnati, thinks that all students should take some liberal arts courses to supplement their professional education, but not because they are forced too, but because they want to. Jackson wrote his essay on why he thinks students, â€Å"†¦question the reasoning behind a liberal arts education† (Jackson 233).Jackson stands behind the belief that educating students on why a liberal arts education is important is just as vital as actually teaching them the liberal arts. He says that, â€Å"If educators really want to increase the number of liberal arts courses that each student takes, they must first increase the popularity of such studies† (235). In other words, no student wants to take a class that they don’t see a point for taking. He backs his statements up by using personal experiences. Jackson explains how he had an argument with his high school counselor because he didn’t want to take a third year of Spanish. I was an A student in Spanish II, but I hated every minute of the class†¦ I told him that I took two years of a foreign language so that I would be accepted to college, but that I did not want to take a third year† (234). In response to his argument, his counselor would reply that he needed to be a â€Å"well-rounded student†, which is exactly why Jackson is so adamant in his reasoning. In relation to that response, Jackson wraps up the essay by saying, â€Å"It is difficult to persuade some college students that becoming a better person is an important goal of higher education.Many students want a college education so that they can make more money and have more power† (235). To finish, he reiterates his point; if students don’t see a point in the taking the course, they won’t want to sign up for it. In the two preceding essays, the two authors give their arguments on where they think specialization belongs in t he education system. Allitt states that having a choice on whether or not to specialize as an undergraduate, and not deal with the liberal arts can be a benefit to students.Jackson believes that students should want to take liberal arts courses, and that if educators want students to do so, they have to do a better job of explaining why they are important and making the courses more attractive. A point of common ground for the two authors, based on the previous statements, is that specialization is important. Without it students will be at a disadvantage. There isn’t an exact point of disagreement between Allit and Jackson. They both outline the pros and cons throughout their essays. That being said, there are differences.Allit is more in favor of specialization, â€Å"The early specialization†¦enabled us to learn one discipline really well, to become far more deeply engaged with it than was possible for our American counterparts† (Allitt 6), but at the same time, understands why a liberal education can be beneficial, â€Å"Its (specialization) great and equal drawback was that it forced some students to choose too soon, before they were ready† (6). Jackson thinks that students should want to take liberal courses to complement their vocational studies. Towards the end of his essay, Jackson ays that, â€Å"Students who want to make the most of their college years should pursue a major course of study while choosing electives or a few minor courses of study from the liberal arts† (Jackson 235). I believe that students should have an option to specialize. Being able to dive right in as an undergrad can be hugely beneficial, and allow a student to separate themself from the rest of the competition. The liberal arts can do the same thing. Specializing brings depth of knowledge and a different, higher level of understanding, while the liberal arts allow students to increase the width of their knowledge. The irony of the emphasis bein g placed on careers is that nothing is more valuable for anyone who has had a professional or vocational education than to be able to deal with abstractions or complexities, or to feel comfortable with subtleties of thought or language, or to think sequentially† (Cousins 31). Jackson used this quote in his essay and I absolutely love it. If I had to back up my opinion with any one statement, this would be it. Vocational education is useless without being able to think abstractly and think on the go, while being able to think abstractly and on the go is useless without a vocational education.Personally, I’d take Jackson’s advice: go right into professional studies, but take classes I felt would make me a more attractive hire. I say that because the reason why I’m in college is so I can get a good-paying job to support myself and one day a family. In order for me to do that, I’m going to have to do all I can to distinguish myself from the group. The u niversity has the intention to do that, but it’s damn near impossible for them to know what is best for each individual student. All of my academic career, I’ve been told that I was being prepared for college, and I was, but now I want to put those tools into practice.Being told what classes to take, and what classes will make me a better student isn’t letting me use what I’ve learned, and is suppressing my ability to make my own decisions. In essence, we’re big kids now. We should have to and want to make the big kid decision on whether or not taking a GEO 106 class will benefit us. Guidance is always welcome, and without the help and suggestions from our advisors we’d be lost, especially as freshman, but that doesn’t mean I should have to take a class that won’t help me achieve my life goals. But some students don’t have the know-how or motivation to take necessary liberal classes, so the university has to force studen ts to take them. † My roommate made this point to me while we were talking about my essay, and I imagine there are many others that feel the same way. My response is this, if a student has yet to take responsibility of his or her own academic career, are they really deserving of a degree? If they can’t make their own decisions on something as simple as which supplementary classes to take, how are they going to function once they hit the real world?Or rather when the real world hits them? Another fantastic argument brought to my attention was: how are students that choose to not specialize right off the bat going to keep up with the ones that do? At this point in every student’s life, we need to stop thinking of us as a whole. We are individuals, and just because Rafiki doesn’t know what to do with his life doesn’t mean the rest of us should suffer. I firmly believe that college marks the beginning of adulthood and the toned-down real world, which me ans that we all as students need to take more responsibility for our own lives.Specialization: does it belong in higher education? I say yes†¦ as long as it is balanced with proper liberal courses. Specialization can give a student essential skills and an intense education that can help them get the edge on someone else competing for the same job, and the liberal arts only increases one’s attractiveness. For all those naysayers out there, I just ask you respect what I have to say, to take my views into consideration, and, as the noble Andre 3000 once said, â€Å"Lend me some suga. I am your neighbor. †

Monday, July 29, 2019

Analyzed and Discussed Self Career management †Free Samples

People demonstrate three type of career self-managing behavior that includes positioning, influence and boundary management. The behavior of the people eliminates any existing carrier barriers and provides a vocational adjustment. Career self management has become one of the integral aspects of professionals that helps to develop goal for an individual along with a layout plan by assessing one’s strengths and weaknesses. After effective planning and evaluating, one is able to successfully execute his/her career plan in a smooth fashion that eventually leads to career advancement and brings career satisfaction to the employee. Thus, career self management is a process through which an individual collects relevant information that is required for career progression through self assessment and identifying opportunities. As the case study illustrates the career life of Dave Armstrong, who was born and brought up in Texas and became the President of a subsidiary company of Thorne Enterprises. After making consistent efforts for eighteen months, Dave left the company to join life insurance business and lead a comfortable life. In Spite of earning a handsome salary, Dave faced the challenge of not been able to take a vacation with his new job. After working day and night for insurance job, Dave got accepted into Harvard Business Review. Now he has to make a career decision between three jobs prospects that seems attractive to Dave. Dave is confused between the three job prospects as the job he chooses is going to define his future career and an inappropriate decision could mess up his future career prospects. The report would aim to discuss the above case by analyzing all the three different job opportunities that Dave has as of present in order to provide suitable recommendations based on the theories discussed in literature review. Career self management is the process of gathering the relevant information regarding one’s career through self assessment and recognizing opportunities. This section would try to cover the importance of career development and making an intelligent career choice by applying the existing knowledge. The literature review would also encompass employability skills and factors for an individual. Further, work life balance would be illustratively presented to demonstrate the importance of managing career in an individual’s life. According to Inkson (2007), there are various stages of career in an individual’s life that could either be because of various roles available in the society or person’s physical change over a period of time. He described theory of career development, which was discovered by Donald Super, as a framework for career guidance by focusing on the attributes and development of individuals. The theory stated that each and every profession has a unique requirement in terms of personal characteristics and the people are attracted towards these characteristics. The author focused on work roles of an individual that could vary from family role to professional role and emphasized on balancing one’s personal life with the job. The authors Arthur, Khapova & Richardson (2017), illustrate through various case studies and examples how an individual can take ownership of work and life by making an intelligent career choice. The authors have very well described an intelligent career that involves the knowledge of an individual acquired over the period of years. The authors have also focused on the working style and methods that involves the application of the acquired knowledge and knowledge extension through consistent learning process. According to the authors Inkson & Arthur (2001), in order to manage the career one must skillfully match individual and organization needs. The authors have described the processes of investment, portfolio development, capital growth that leads to career advancement. According to Briscoe et al (2012), there are two major career concepts including protean career and boundaryless career. Protean career has a value driven approach and is independent of the external career influences. A boundaryless career does not perceive structural constraints and the decision is taken by considering all the aspects that could include work family reasons. The authors construed that boundaryless employees are not necessarily less committed to the organization. The authors Briscoe & Finkelstein (2009), also supported the idea that boundaryless career and protean career attitudes are differentially correlated. Rodrigues & Guest (2010) stated that the concept of boundaryless career is fuzzy by drawing the potential of another method to conceptualize career boundaries. According to the author Bridgstock (2009), an individual must have employment skills in the fast changing global business context. They must look forward for continuous development by acquiring knowledge and skills with the changing information and knowledge intensive economy. The stress was on developing generic skills that is defined as transferable skills that are considered vital for employability. Further, an individual must possess attributes such as lifelong learning and adaptability. According to Rothwell & Arnold (2007), employability has become one of the topmost concerns for the individuals and their key goal is to be able to manage their careers effectively.    The authors Wolff & Moser (2009) stated that networking has a huge impact on career by stressing on six components that considered the impact of internal & external networking and building, maintaining and using contacts. According to Janasz & Forret (2008), networking helps to develop and maintain relationship with others that opens opportunities for an individual. The author Sturges (2008), identified the connection between career self management and managing work life harmony. He construed through the research that an individual may be involved in various career self management behaviors as per the career goal. The author identified one of the behaviors as creating a balance between work and life and people who are only focused towards their career could destruct their work life balance. The author also tried to demonstrate the influence of career stages on career goal and behavior of an individual to construe that career attitude and behavior has a great impact on work life balance and is the major concern of younger members irrespective of their family responsibilities. The authors Weng & McElroy (2010), studied the impact of career self management and vocational self concept crystallization on the effectiveness of an individual’s decision. The study revealed that career self management has a positive impact on effectiveness of job decision and vocational self concept crystallization. The study also revealed that vocational self concept crystallization has positive impact on effectiveness of job decision. The authors Abele & Wiese (2007), analyzed the self management strategies including development of goals, goal pursuing behavior, career planning and comparative judgment. The authors claimed that general strategy is connected to domain specific strategy, which can be further linked to the results. Dave has been offered three job opportunities and all the three of them have some pros and cons associated with them due to which Dave is facing pressure of selecting the best job opportunity that offers a bright future. Job A is the best job prospect for Dave and in order to understand it the report would discuss the pros and cons of all the three jobs. Job B has been offered by one of the oil exploration company in Houston and require Dave to invest an amount of 100k dollars that is one third of the total equity. Dave would receive around 60, 000 dollars as an annual compensation. The deal does not have any attractiveness as the business would cease to exist after two years period. Further, Dave would also lose the opportunity to operate in partnership in case the oil and gas glut dries up before they launch the company. All he would be getting is just 8% commission for his performance. If Dave wishes to make an intelligent career choice, he would never chose this option as there is not future and security in the job in terms of salary and security. Further, Dave would also have to make an initial investment of 100k $ that could just go in vain if he loses the equity partnership. Job C is the most convenient job for Mr Dave and is also the top choice of his wife. The job offers Dave a secure future with 45k dollars salary. Dave would be required to work for oil and gas investment fund in the firm and would be analyzing the properties of oil and gas. The job is a perfect combination of security and salary for an individual. Now analyzing the job from the theory of intelligent career would suggest that Dave must evaluate alternatives before choosing the option. Dave has already received the offer of more than 50k dollars from other two companies due to which the attractiveness of the offer goes away. Dave has graduated from Harvard Business School and thus, has the caliber to acquire a job with higher salary. This job may offer him security but does not offer a good salary. The career intelligence theory stated that one must have a better understanding of oneself before making a career choice (Arthur, Khapova & Richardson, 2017). Further, one must also match th e quality of organization and an individual before selecting the organization (Inkson & Arthur, 2001). From the two theories, it can be construed that Dave’s skills and the organizational skills do not match effectively since Dave is very ambitious and seek to groom himself through continuous learning process. The organization does not offer him a justified position and underestimates his talent and potential strength. Thus, Dave must not go for this job opportunity. Job A is being offered by Mr Thorne that would require a huge investment from Dave. Thorne has offered Dave an offer to work with him for piggyback rail terminal that is situated between Dallas and Houston. The project is being studied by a group of business school students to evaluate the feasibility. The offer seems attractive as it is likely to attract business from Dallas and Houston. The cost of land on which the project would be built is 1/100 the cost of industrial property located in Dallas or Houston. The job offer seems lucrative if considered from the salary and future perspective. Dave would receive around 50k-70k salary along with bonus and equity share in the business. Dave must make an intelligent career choice here by applying all his knowledge and evaluating the external factors. He must also analyze the situation from an alternative perspective. He must consider that he would also be required to invest a huge amount of 200k to 300k dollars for which he would have pu t up his entire savings in the project. He would also have to make many adjustments in his lifestyle and his wife would also have to bear it. Further, the business may or may not be able to generate results in future that could devastate the entire career of Dave. Now from self career management theory, it can be construed that Dave must consider from the aspect of work life balance (Sturges, 2008). The job may cost Dave and his wife a huge fortune in future and thus, he must consider the opinion of his wife as well in order to secure their future. In spite of several cons, this is the most lucrative offer for Dave because of its unique idea and low cost strategy plan. From the given information and present scenario, the plan also promises to yield great results in future. Also his wife is also looking forward for him to be happy and according to the theory of career self management, the quality of an individual and organization must match that can be witnessed in this case. Dave ha s huge potential to build a great business empire through his determination and ambitious nature. Thus, using the theory of career self management, it can be construed that Dave must go for Job A to work with Mr Thorne where he can utilize his potential strength and become a successful businessman. The report has successfully analyzed and discussed self career management through the case study of Dave. Career self management has become an integral component for a professional. A professional must assess his strengths and weaknesses in order to develop a specific career path for him and must analyze the external factors before making any career choice. They must look forward for continuous development by acquiring knowledge and skills with the changing information and knowledge intensive economy. The stress was on developing generic skills that is defined as transferable skills that are considered vital for employability. After thorough and deep investigation of the case study, the report evaluated Job A as the best alternative for Dave. Job B did not have any future in terms of business as the business was likely to disappear. The job also did not have any partnership promise in future as it was likely to go if oil and gas glut dries. Further, job did not match with the skills of Dave who is ambitious and determined for his career. Job C was evaluated as the most convenient job that also did not match up with the skills of Dave. Dave is most likely to get frustrated with the job after sometime because of his ambitious nature. Further job also did not offer a good pay to Dave. Job A was evaluated to be risky and required a huge amount of investment but is the most feasible and lucrative job for Dave as it matches with the skill sets of Dave. Abele, A.E., & Wiese, B.S. (2007). The Nomological Network of Self-Management Strategies and Career Success. Labor and Socio Economic Research Center, 7, 1-30. Arthur, M., Khapova, S. & Richardson, J. (2017). An Intelligent Career: Taking Responsibility for Your Work and Your Life. New York: Oxford University Press Bridgstock, R. (2009). The graduate attributes we’ve overlooked: enhancing graduate employability through career management skills. Higher Education Research & Development, 28(1), 31-44. Briscoe, J. P., & Finkelstein, L. M. (2009). The â€Å"new career† and organizational commitment: do boundaryless and protean attitudes make a difference?.  Career Development International,  14(3), 242-260. Briscoe, J. P., Henagan, S. C., Burton, J. P., & Murphy, W. M. (2012). Coping with an insecure employment environment: The differing roles of protean and boundaryless career orientations.  Journal of Vocational Behavior,80(2), 308-316. de Janasz, S. C., & Forret, M. L. (2008). Learning the art of networking: A critical skill for enhancing social capital and career success.  Journal of management education,  32(5), 629-650. De Vos, A., & Soens, N. (2008). Protean attitude and career success: The mediating role of self-management.  Journal of Vocational behavior,  73(3), 449-456. Inkson, K. & Arthur, M. (2001). How to be a successful career capitalist. Organizational Dynamics, 30(1), p 48-61.   Inkson, K. (2007). Understanding Career: The metaphors of working lives. Thousand Oaks: Sage Publications Raabe, B., Frese, M., & Beehr, T. A. (2007). Action regulation theory and career self-management.  Journal of Vocational Behavior,  70(2), 297-311. Rodrigues, R. A., & Guest, D. (2010). Have careers become boundaryless?.Human Relations,  63(8), 1157-1175. Rothwell, A., & Arnold, J. (2007). Self-perceived employability: development and validation of a scale.  Personnel review,  36(1), 23-41. Sturges, J. (2008). All in a day's work? Career self?management and the management of the boundary between work and non?work.  Human Resource Management Journal,  18(2), 118-134. Weng, Q., & McElroy, J. C. (2010). Vocational self-concept crystallization as a mediator of the relationship between career self-management and job decision effectiveness.  Journal of Vocational Behavior,  76(2), 234-243. Wolff, H. G., & Moser, K. (2009). Effects of networking on career success: a longitudinal study.  Journal of Applied Psychology,  94(1), 196. End your doubt 'should I pay someone to do my dissertation by availing dissertation writing services from

Sunday, July 28, 2019

Why the US and China Are the Most Suitable Countries for Montar Essay - 1

Why the US and China Are the Most Suitable Countries for Montar Vehicles - Essay Example Such technology for the driver would include rear and front camera, automatic aid reversing the passenger are able to watch movies in surround sound whilst drinking their preferred beverage ‘ice cold’ from the drinks cooler provided. Executive options can be added for chauffeur driven styles like the hand-stitched leather upholstery, wooden oak glazed interior, making it a direct competitor to the existing high-end luxury car vehicles that are well established. The price range for these vehicles will be between  £100,000-  £350,000 depending on the car chosen, with the lower boundary competing with car brands Mercedes-Benz, BMW & Audi whilst the upper price boundaries will compete with the likes of Bentley, Maybach and Rolls Royce. To appreciate the high-price, high-end range of Monster vehicles, the customer must have a certain sensibility and regard for finer things. The customer will typically belong to the affluent class of society and will have a taste for exclusive, expensive things. He will also understand that driving a certain vehicle bespeaks a lot about a person’s individuality, preferences and personality. The Monster 2 door coupe and the 4 door saloon is a vehicle that would be aimed at the high net worth individuals that have the purchasing power to enjoy such a vehicle. The coupe is aimed at the younger members of the affluent class, aged between 18 and 35, who are looking for the classier driving experience. They have great-looking possessions, successful and happening lives and similar social circles to move in. On the other hand, the more prudent saloon is seen more like a chauffeur driven vehicle for the extremely wealthy, senior-level professionals and businessmen. The classy exterior would appease their aesthetic sensibilities and the comfortable, first-class interior would allow the passengers to travel in comfort. The target audience comprises of individuals who already own chauffeur driven vehicles like the Rolls Royce Phantom.  

Overall do you think the new global economy is a good thing or a bad Essay

Overall do you think the new global economy is a good thing or a bad thing - Essay Example The new global economy would not be a positive thing to United States economy, which operates a free- market capitalism. The increased production in numerous growing economies such as China and India will infiltrate the United States leading to the decline of the exportation income. Dahlman and Renwick (483) state â€Å"The United States has generally eased import restrictions in hopes that U.S export to other countries will increase†. The dwindling exportation created by the new global in the United States would adversely affect many industries, which may cause some employees to be laid- off. With the wide- ranging areas of production in China and India, the new global economy would highly benefit these emerging economies. The youthful generation augmented by a growing population in both China and India would stretch the production and utilization further, which would encourage these countries to absorb much of their production, while importing more from other

Saturday, July 27, 2019

Should nuclear power be revived in California and the United States Research Paper

Should nuclear power be revived in California and the United States - Research Paper Example The aftermath of using fossil fuel as a source of energy has recently revived the interest of incorporating nuclear power as a major source of energy. The need of reviving the use of nuclear power has further being aggravated by the ever-increasing population, thus increasing the demand of energy. Reliable operations and safety are the main requirements that lead to the approval of nuclear energy as a source of power generation (Rosen and Glasser, 1992, p. 308). Importance of nuclear power †¢ Development imperative On attaining a wealth of information from the US senate, senator Domenici indicated that human development is the creation of a surrounding where individuals can establish their maximum potential, as humans are considered the real wealth of the world; indeed, human development supersedes economic growth. The fact remains that we need energy to not only drive our industries, but also support our current trends of living. Lack of electricity has been identified as one of the perpetrators of poverty. In 1999, the United States was noted to consume approximately 25 percent of the world’s energy. Nevertheless, high consumption of electricity indicates the ever-changing lifestyle in United States’ growing population. Nuclear power generation as a way of diversifying the sources of electricity generation can not only free up fossil fuel, but also ensure the uses have no other substitutes. The result of use of nuclear power is a cleaner environment, creation of more job opportu nities and maximum use of available raw material. . According to Sir Ingham, based on rational discourse, nuclear power should be viewed based as the foundation of man’s sustainable power that has no offence to the surrounding. environment (Domenici, Lyons and Steyn, 2004, p. 182, 183 & 184). Substitute for natural gas and oil imports. Increase in population brings about high demand of energy. This high demand of energy hence forces the country to import energy, which could lead to political instability and lack of cost control. According to Domenici, Lyons and Steyn (2004), reliance of imported energy has been predicted to rise from 50 percent to 70 percent in the decades to come within the European countries. Heavy reliance of imported energy may have negative global impact and hence United States should have an equilibrium energy policy that incorporates healthy reliance on nuclear power in order to suppress the ever-increasing competition of fossil fuel supply in the deca des to come. America will encounter stiff competition from fast developing countries and the European Union countries for supply of imported energy and hence the best option will be for the country to incorporate the nuclear energy option and attain the diversification of electricity. The heavy reliance of natural gas and oil imports will not only lead the United States to a dangerous path but also return the nation to the situation it was fifty years ago regarding foreign oil imports. According to the research undertaken by EIA, 39 percent of US’ energy is bound to be imported as indicated statistically in 2002 when 29 percent of the country’

Friday, July 26, 2019

UNIT 1 science Individual project Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

UNIT 1 science Individual project - Essay Example This revolution meant replacing the economy, which was built on manual labor, to one which is dominated by industry and by manufacturing machinery. This, in turn, led scientists to build more and more machines, tools and buildings with new function, which decreased the workload of workers but also had a negative affect on nature (HighBeam Encyclopedia, 2004). This led to the latter of the revolutions- the Environmental Revolution. The environmental revolution is something which has been taking place and occurring more lately. Since the quantity of research and data proving how detrimental some technologies and machines are is abundant, more and more people are opting to fight for the noble cause of trying to heal our planet and to uproot and stop those responsible for the ecological degradation and increasingly more imminent destruction of our world. These people are called environmentalists, and their purposes include minimizing pollutions, preserving and protecting nature from detrimental people, machines and buildings and fighting to add more ecologic-friendly laws to the constitution and by doing so, legitimizing and reinforcing their claims by legislation. This revolution is closely and tightly bound to the term environmentalism, which is "a concern for the preservation, restoration and improvement of the natural environment, such as the preservation of natural resources, prevention of pollution, and cer tain land use actions". This activism for nature and ecology was first recorded in India 400 years ago, when Indian men embraced death in order to protest and try to stop the cutting of trees in their forest by the kings men of that region. Modern environmentalism started in the mid to late 19th century in the United States with two preservationists starting to fight for the environment. One of them was a writer who writings were read by millions, and therefore became more known to

Thursday, July 25, 2019

Leadership in Shia Islam, Orthodox Judaism, and Roman Catholicism Essay

Leadership in Shia Islam, Orthodox Judaism, and Roman Catholicism - Essay Example The imamate history began with Ali, who is also accepted by Sunni Muslims as the fourth of the "rightly guided caliphs" to succeed the Prophet. Shias respect Ali as the First Imam, and his children, beginning with his sons Hassan and Husain, continue the line of the Imams until the twelfth. When Ali was six years old, he was invited by the Prophet to live with him, and Shia believes Ali was the first person to make the declaration of faith in Islam. Ali also slept in the Prophets bed on the night of the hijra, when it was feared that the house would be attacked by unbelievers and the Prophet stabbed to death. He fought in all the battles the Prophet did, except one, and the Prophet chose him to be the husband of one of his favorite daughters, Fatima. The Shia Imams represent the picture of both the mysterious and transparent dimensions of Islam. The authority of Imams includes both this worldly and other worldly affairs. One of the most significant doctrines underlying the possibility of the Imam’s comprehensive authority is their infallibility. The Sunnis believe that the Imams are infallible to any sin. For them if the Imams were considered to be the subject to sin and error, then there will not be any difference between the leader and the led which will paralyze the structure and operation of their religion. The followers are well advised to keep the authority of the Imam intact since though the Imam only the God is dispersing duties blessings to the followers as per the Shia’s belief. Only the Imams have the authority to reveal the hidden meanings of Qur’an. Since the Imams provide continuous authoritative interpretations of the Qur’an they are supposed to be free of any sin or error. It is a cond ition for Imam. The Imams are considered to be the charismatic leaders through their association with Mohammad as messenger of Allah. Jewish People believe in good and evils and they think that goodness

Wednesday, July 24, 2019

Tesco - An In- and External Market Environment Analysis Assignment

Tesco - An In- and External Market Environment Analysis - Assignment Example Tesco was established in 1919 as a company that is engaged in the business of grocery retail chains (Tesco, 2014). The company has grown today to become the second largest retail business after Wal-Mart. Its global store count goes up to 6351 stores while its revenues measure up to  £72,673 million in 2013 (Tesco, 2013). The company is also listed on the London Stock Exchange with an estimated market capitalisation of  £24.4 billion (Tesco, 2013). The report is aimed at an analysis of Tesco Plc from the strategic viewpoint. It is organised in a manner which provides answers to four critical questions. The first segment analyses the external market environment from the micro and the macro perspective for Tesco Plc through Porter’s five forces and PESTEL Analysis. The second segment deals with the analysis of Tesco’s Internal Environment through Value Chain Analysis and Resources based view. The third segment talks in detail about the crisis faced by Tesco and what impact it had on the company. The last part deals with an analysis of different types of strategies undertaken by a business including corporate strategy and business level strategy. With the help of such analysis, the report tries to suggest future strategies and implementation techniques for it. Q1 – Analysis of the external environment Macro Environment Analysis – PESTEL Political – UK supermarket industry has been affected by different political factors like tax rates and legislative compliances. The political climate is relatively stable and the government provides encouragement and enough support to the supermarket establishments because of the high levels of employment potential within the industry.

Tuesday, July 23, 2019

Maple Syrup Urine Disease Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Maple Syrup Urine Disease - Essay Example This enzyme complex is composed of three catalytic components E1, E2, and E3 and two regulatory enzymes, BCKD phosphatase and BCKD kinase. The E1 component is further divided into two subunits, E1 and E1 (Bodamer, 2008). The defect in maple syrup urine disease lies in the E1, E1, E2, and E3 components (Fauci et al, 2008: 2472). In addition, E3 component is also associated with pyruvate dehydrogenase and -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, thus, this defect in BCKD with specific mutation in E3 causes additional deficit in pyruvate and -ketoglutarate dehydrogenases (Bodamer, 2008). The catabolism of BCAAs involves the same enzymes in the first two steps (Laygo, 2007:28). The first enzyme utilized is BCAA aminotransferase which converts leucine, isoleucine and valine to their -ketoacids: -ketoisocaproic acid, -keto--methylvaleric acid, and -ketoisovaleric acid respectively. The branched-chain -ketoacid dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the decarboxylation of these -ketoacids so that they are degraded to short fatty acids, isovaleryl-CoA, -methylbutyryl-CoA and isobutyryl-CoA (Leucine mildly to moderately elevated). Further metabolism should yield acetyl-CoA, acetoacetate, and succinyl-CoA (Bodamer, 2008). Among the clinical manifestations of maple syrup urine disease are lethargy, vomiting, encephalopathy, seizures, mental retardation, "maple syrup" odor and protein intoleranc

How Has Globalization Affected Corporate Strategy in the 21st Century Essay Example for Free

How Has Globalization Affected Corporate Strategy in the 21st Century Essay In the last 21 years the notion of a multinational company has changed significantly. This is best demonstrated by the 1973 United Nations definition, which clearly stated an enterprise is multinational if it controls assets, factories, mines, sales offices, and the like in two or more countries (Bartlett, Ghoshal 2000 p.3). As we know a multinational corporation is much more then just that it controls foreign assets, it must also have a substantial direct investment in foreign countries, as well as engaging in some form of management of these foreign assets. The evolution of corporations over this time has been somewhat difficult and by no means is the process of change finalized. As with most things this evolution and learning process could be seen as being life long. The environment in which we operate clearly evolves each year and to stay ahead businesses are now required to stay ahead of developments to compete. Some of the slower players, such as Phillips (Bartlett 1999) merely lost market share through this evolution, others in the past and perhaps in the future will lose their businesses. To understand the importance of multinational corporations in relation to the world economy we see that they account for over 40 percent of the worlds manufacturing output, and almost a quarter of world trade (Bartlett, Ghoshal 2000 p.3). Although the focus is often on the larger players such as Ford, Procter and Gamble, or Coca Cola as time progresses it is more the smaller companies which we will need to keep an eye on, as they become important players, especially in international niche markets(Bartlett, Ghoshal 2000 p.3). Traditionally there were three motivations for most organisations to enter international markets, or to undertake investment overseas. These were: 1. Suppliers the ongoing need to source supplies for operations (adapted from Bartlett, Ghoshal 1989, 2000). 2. Markets seeking additional markets to sell products. Traditionally companies went international to sell excess production lines, or to meet one off needs. The market then moved to increased competition where players were keen to be the first mover to a market, so as to gain a competitive advantage. Corporations were often driven by the home country size, with the need for further consumers for ongoing viability and growth (adapted from Bartlett, Ghoshal 1989, 2000) 3. Lower Cost by seeking production facilities which would attract lower labor costs and hence higher profits. Clothing and electronics were the first movers in this strategy, usually looking to developing countries such as China or Taiwan. This is still used somewhat today as a strategy, such as large call centers providing services in India for most Australian banks (adapted from Bartlett, Ghoshal 1989, 2000) It is not my intention to go into the advantages and disadvantages of a corporation entering an international market, or to continue to operate in an international market, beyond the above three initial drivers. What is imperative that in the 21st Century an organisation must seek a strategy that meets the organisations ongoing needs which is clear and precise so as to provide direction for future growth. Due to the ongoing worldwide demand after WWII, most organisations prospered when entering international markets. Often however the strategies to entry were ad hoc and did not provide clear objectives or guidance for ongoing management. Operations were based on an ethnocentric approach. Even though at the time they were referred to as Multinational Corporations, literature now refers to them as International Corporations. As international operations expanded and took on a more important role in the organisation, such as being a key profit centre, or perhaps a product innovation being conceived in an offshore operation, they tended to come under increased management scrutiny, such as the case with Fuji Xerox (Gomes-Casseres, McQuade 1991). This then progressed the corporation to a multinational approach, international markets being as important or even more important then the home market, which is more a polycentric approach to management. The potential from these operations were reviewed by management; the possibilities for cost reductions due to standardization moved most corporations onto the next phase being the global corporation mentality. This is that the entire world is a potential market. Retaining a image from their initial home country, such as McDonalds, they seek to enter all markets to service all customers, hence a regiocentric or geocentric philosophy of management. Bartlett and Ghoshal have gone beyond this to advocate the development of the transnational corporation. This takes the concept of global corporations one step further. Corporations to prosper in a globally competitive environment, should concentrate wherever possible on responding to cost pressures, leveraging of knowledge and information, whilst ensuring local responsiveness to consumer needs (1989 p.13). Cost reduction are imperative to ensure the ongoing viability of corporations. The sharing of costs globally for items such as R D and mass production both provide examples of significant cost reductions, while enhancing learning and knowledge. By increasing the availability of information across the group you are more likely to also encounter a higher quality product as the innovation and knowledge is shared for the corporations greater good. Often companies forget that knowledge does not just reside in just the home country. Important information such as the local consumer market are often best to be determined by local managers so as to respond to local needs. In relation to local responsiveness Theodore Levitt (1983) provides a somewhat extreme view of the global market. His philosophy is that technological, social and economic developments over the last two decades have combined to create a unified world marketplace in which companies must capture global-scale economies to remain competitive. As we have discussed, the need to become competitive through reduction in costs is imperative for every business. However Levitts concept of a unified marketplace with homogenous needs has still some way to go. As researched by Procter and Gamble even how we wash our clothes differs throughout the world, sometimes even within each country. The provision of a standardized product to suit all in this industry would be a failure due to not meeting the needs of local consumers (Bartlett 1983). When we review these three elements of cost reduction, leverage of knowledge and local responsiveness we are aware that these terms are somewhat contradictory. History tells us that to provide local responsiveness you need to increase costs to increase the number of products which meet a specific consumer groups needs. The alternative is to standardize products to achieve economies of scale during production and marketing. Caterpillar has somewhat successfully implemented such a strategy. They redesigned their products around the use of standardized components. These are produced on mass through large production facilities to reduce the component costs and provide economies of scale. Machines are then transported to foreign markets where localized knowledge and components adapt the machines to the needs of local consumers (Srinivasa 1985). The overall approach is that they are able to combine all three elements of the transnational approach. Corporations also need to be aware of the increasingly complex nature of undertaking business in an international market. Social, cultural, and political environments, as well as currency fluctuations, and geographic diversity need to be considered carefully in any decision to undertake a foreign operation. It is best to research thoroughly and constantly review any strategy for overseas ventures as situations can change as in any business venture quite quickly. An example of this would be the increased use of Indonesia as a low cost production base for Australian corporations. With the increased political instability and also terrorism most corporations would be considering the ongoing viability of continuing in this market. Finally corporations need to be aware that to make any significant changes to an corporation strategy or structure it is both extremely complex, time consuming and challenging. As Ford has discovered, by constantly changing strategies to seek higher profitability, all they have been able to achieve has been another announcement of huge losses in 2001 from failed global ventures (Hill, Jones 2004 p276). The move to a transnational approach for most corporations would need to be a slow progression, while for some it is even perhaps out of reach. By focusing on the main elements of cost reduction, knowledge leveraging and local differentiation perhaps this will provide an avenue in the future for continued competitive advantage in an environment which is slowly moving towards Levitts concept of the global village (1983). Perhaps the key lies with Bartlett and Ghoshal when they tell us that companies must now respond simultaneously to diverse and often conflicting strategic needs. Today, no firm can succeed with a relatively unidimensional strategic capability that emphasizes only efficiency, or responsiveness, or leveraging of parent company knowledge and competencies. To win, a company must now achieve all three goals at the same time (1989 p 25). REFERENCE LISTING Bartlett, Christopher A. 1983 Case 6-1 Proctor and Gamble Europe: Vizir Launch, taken from Bartlett, Christopher A. Ghoshal, Sumantra 2000 Text, Cases, and Readings in Cross-Border Management, 3rd Edn, McGraw-Hill International Editions, Singapore, pp 632 647. Bartlett, Christopher A. Ghoshal, Sumantra 1989 Managing Across Borders: The Transnational Solution, Harvard Business School Press, Boston Massachusetts. Barlett, Christopher A. 1999 Case 2 -4 Phillips and Matsushita 1998: Growth of 2 Companies, taken from Bartlett, Christopher A. Ghoshal, Sumantra 2000 Text, Cases, and Readings in Cross-Border Management, 3rd Edn, McGraw-Hill International Editions, Singapore, pp 164 -180 Bartlett, Christopher A. Ghoshal, Sumantra 2000 Text, Cases, and Readings in Cross-Border Management, 3rd Edn, McGraw-Hill International Editions, Singapore. Gomes-Casseres, Benjamin McQuade, Krista 1991 Case 4-1 Xerox and Fuji Xerox, taken from Bartlett, Christopher A. Ghoshal, Sumantra 2000 Text, Cases, and Readings in Cross-Border Management, 3rd Edn, McGraw-Hill International Editions, Singapore, pp 418 443 Hill, Charles W. L Jones, Gareth R. 2004 Strategic Management Theory: An Integrated Approach, 6th Edn, Houghton Mifflin Company, Boston, Massachusetts. Levitt, T. 1983 The Globalization of Markets Harvard Business Review, May June, pp. 92 102. Srinivasa, Rangan V. 1985 Case 3-1 Caterpillar Tractor Co., taken from Bartlett, Christopher A. Ghoshal, Sumantra 2000 Text, Cases, and Readings in Cross-Border Management, 3rd Edn, McGraw-Hill International Editions, Singapore, pp 259 279.

Monday, July 22, 2019

Quantitative and Qualitative Research Questions and Hypothesis Essay Example for Free

Quantitative and Qualitative Research Questions and Hypothesis Essay Jung (2007) found that general education teacher’s attitudes toward the integration of students with disabilities reflect a lack of confidence both in their own instructional skills and in the quality of support personnel currently provides. General and special education teachers are placed in inclusive classroom settings for the betterment of the student; however, planning is not as effective when general education teachers are not properly trained on or comfortable with the technology. Thousand and Villa (2000) in McLaren, Bausch, Ault (2007), found that providing training for all teachers will result in improved academic and social outcomes for students with disabilities, plus their teachers will become empowered . The problem is the need for more collaborative training for inclusion teachers in an effort to effectively plan curriculum and increase their levels of confidence with the use of AT devices. The specific problem is the need to develop a program to train inclusion teachers on the use of AT devices needed to effectively plan for students with disabilities. This study will use a quantitative method and a Participatory Action Research (PAR) methodology. The PAR will be conducted by dividing the study into two sequence phases. The first phase will include developing the training program, introducing basic AT devices that can be used for all students, and reflection of the first training. Phase two will include training for advanced AT devices that are developed for specific student needs, developing a lesson with the use of one general and one advanced AT device, and the opportunity to teach the lesson. The results should interest school districts that service students with disabilities in an effort to improve effective collaboration for inclusion teachers, thus promoting a sense of teamwork to improve student achievement through the use of technology. Revised Purpose Statement- Quantitative Study The purpose of this quantitative research study is to develop a training program for special and general education inclusion teachers that will focus on strategies for educational development, effective academic structuring, and increased teacher support systems with the use of Assistive Technology. The data collection design will include surveys before, during, and after  each phase, trainings to implement the program, and field opportunities to identify the areas of improvement and to test the validity of the program. The population will be composed of elementary school teachers who are placed in inclusion settings without prior training. The sample and sample set will include three novice and three veteran elementary inclusion teachers selected from grades 3-5 based on survey results. The geographical area will include three local elementary feeder schools that house special education programs in the South Fulton County area of Georgia. Quantitative Research Questions and Hypoth esis RQ: To what degree, if at all, will training in Assistive Technology promote effective academic structuring and teacher collaboration in inclusive classroom settings?  HO: The degree of training in Assistive Technology will not promote effective academic structuring and teacher collaboration in inclusive classroom settings.  HA: The degree of training in Assistive Technology will positively promote effective academic structuring and teacher collaboration in inclusive classroom settings. Revised Problem Statement – Qualitative Study Al-Shammari and Yawkey (2008) believe that special education students require the involvement of parents to be successful for overall development and in their education programs. Parents are encouraged to participate by offering physical and psychological assistance to the special education teachers in an effort to monitor and manage student progress. However, the lack of support, knowledge, time, and resources result in the unwillingness to participate. Bird (2006) found that increasing parental involvement through technology may have a positive effect on the development of special education students and parents. The problem is the need for technological resources that promote parental involvement for improving the educational development of special education students. The specific problem is identifying the technology that most effectively increases parental involvement in special education. This study will use a qualitative method and case study similar to Hartas’ (2008) st udy of the effects of parental  involvement on students with Autism. Parents will participate in semi-structured interviews, questionnaires, and classroom observations to determine what motivates them to be involved. The results should interest special education teachers who require assistance from parents in order for students to attend school daily, participate in instruction, and continue to exhibit progression in all areas of development. Revised Purpose Statement- Qualitative Study The purpose of this qualitative case study is to identify the technological resources that are most effective in encouraging parents of special education students to be involved in the student’s education. The data collection design will include questionnaires, observations, schedule restructuring, community involvement, and semi-structured interviews to identify the areas of improvement. The population will be composed of parents who have elementary-aged special needs children. The sample and sample set will include ten parents; five from two-parent working class homes and five from single-parent working class homes. The geographical area will include two (of the three) selected elementary feeder schools, based on survey results, that service special education students in the South Fulton County area of Georgia who are most in need of an intervention. Qualitative Research Question What are the most effective technological resources that assist in encouraging parents of students with special needs to be involved in their child’s education? References Al-Shammari, Z., Yawkey, T. (2008). Extent of parental involvement in improving the students levels in special education programs in Kuwait. Journal of Instructional Psychology, 35(2), 140-150. Bird, K. (2006). How do you spell parental involvement? S-I-S. The Journal, 33(7), 38. Hartas, D. (2008). Practices of parental participation: A case study. Educational Psychology in Practice, 24(2), 139-153. Jung, W. (2007). Preservice teacher training for successful inclusion. Education, 128(1), 106-113. McLaren, E. M., Bausch, M. E., Ault, M. (2007). Collaboration strategies reported  by teachers providing assistive technology services. Journal of Special Education Technology, 22(4), 16-29. Week 5 Review Components2 points| Expected elements are included.| Articulation5 points | As noted, there are shortcomings regarding population and sample. * 1 point| Presentation2 points | Writing and formatting are well done.| Total9 points| A good start toward purpose statements aligned with problem.|